Amro wrote:On the subject of the NT and OT and Islam: Islam doesn't consider either a part of its scriptures (especially the NT) but:
"All those who would believe, believe in God, and His angels, and His Books, and His prophets, and the Last Day..."
This is in the Koran im not sure exactly where. His books are the Torah, Bible, Koran, and another (i'm not sure what it's called).
Hmm this just shows I have more to learn when it comes to other faiths, so I thank you for clearing this up for me
Is it possible the fourth book is the Hadith? I have heard of this second book of Islam ... however it seems from what I've read that it is not considered on the same "level" as the Koran by Muslims, so it would not technically be considered unerring scripture. I think this is because while the Koran states clearly that Mohammad did not work any miracles, the Hadith (which came after the Koran) and later writings do talk about Mohammad working miracles.
Amro wrote:Basically, muslims believe that there was a christian bible, and that, at a time, it was the 'right' religion, but ignore its teachings because it has been corrupted (as I said earlier, it's the cause of Mohammed's sending). Same with the Torah, and the fourth book has been lost. At least I've never heard of it existing in our time.
I do not understand how Muslims can say that the NT has become "corrupted". First of all, we have very early copies of the NT books, and they are the same (except for minor variations which do not change any teachings) as the books we read today. To say that the NT had become corrupted would mean that ALL of the NT documents were SYSTEMATICALLY corrupted within a few years of being written, in the same place that they were written, while the people who had actually met Jesus were still alive.
All would have to have been corrupted, because there are no surviving "originals" that confirm the corruption theory. They would have had to be
systematically corrupted because all the NT documents are all in agreement with eachother.
Also, I question the "wisdom" of any God who would sending a prophet (Jesus) only to have his teachings totally misunderstood and/or his writings corrupted a few years after his death ... and then have millions of people follow these corrupted teachings before sending a second prophet to correct the first one.
Amro wrote:emmzee you're confusing me: you're saying that Jesus is God yet God inflicted His wrath upon Jesus. And why would God be fully human or even partially, even temporarily?
I'm saying that, essentially, God took the wrath upon himself. Dogbreath already talked about this at length in his post, and probably did so better than I could, so please check out his post.
Amro wrote:Btw dogbreath is saying Jesus is God's son and you said he IS God.
Tomatoes, toMAToes.
Jesus is called Lord, Son of Man, Son of God, Son of David, Messiah, etc. The Holy Spirit is also God, for that matter. Christians believe that the single God has revealed himself to us through the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit, but all of these are equally God.
Amro re Mark 2 story wrote:Im confused
Maybe reading the full story would help:
The Message translation:
http://www.biblegateway.com/cgi-bin/bib ... ersion=MSG
Essentially, Jesus said to the paralyzed man
"Your sins are forgiven." Then the religious teachers of the time complained, saying rightly that
"He can't talk that way! That's blasphemy! God and only God can forgive sins." So Jesus healed the man's paralysis:
"Well, just so it's clear that I'm the Son of Man and authorized to do either, or both ..." He himself took credit for the healing. (As I showed above no other person took credit for such miracles.) If he himself can miraculously heal someone, then he also has authority to forgive sins, for only God can do either.
Amro wrote:Well, you said it yourself, NT is after Jesus... So why should you take what it says seriously? Maybe some of the people put it there to make sure christians wouldn't convert to another prophet-based faiths if there were more.
The New Testament is a historical document. It was written after the events that it records because it records history. Luke says at the beginning of his gospel
"Since I have investigated all the reports in close detail, starting from the story's beginning, I decided to write it all out for you" History is necessarily recorded after the events occur that it records
So I'm not sure I understand this objection.
The question could be why it wasn't recorded until 20-30 years after Jesus' death. Well, the culture of that time was an oral culture. The normal way of communicating information was speaking/preaching, not writing it down. As I mentioned before, since this was the main way of communicating people were generally very accurate, especially when dealing with religious matters. Remember most of the early Christians were Jews, who were quite used to memorizing large parts of the OT books.
Also, Paul's letters were written even earlier than the earliest gospel (Mark). Paul's letters even contain "creeds" which are from even earlier time periods. When you compare the events recorded in the NT and the events recorded for other historical events from that time period, there's no contest, the NT was recorded much closer to the time the events occurred.